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Father Jenkins is a priest of the Archdiocese of Washington and is currently the pastor of the Church of the Holy Spirit in Forestville, MD.

Friday, September 17, 2004

More on Mary & the Saints


Is it not wrong to honor saints and angels since the bible says, "You shall adore the Lord your God, and him alone you shall serve"?

Certain critics misinterpret Catholic teaching on this matter. Catholics adore God alone. He is the one we serve. The honor we show the saints is of a secondary order. It is no more an offense against God than the honor and respect we show our parents and friends.

How can Catholics rationalize such an attitude given the clear Scriptural prohibitions, as in Isaiah 42:8, "My honor I shall give to no other"?

There is no deep rationalization here, only common sense and courtesy. Of course, the mindset of those who have refashioned Christianity into a privatized sect, seeking a direct link with Christ while ignoring any semblance of a family of faith-- living and dead-- would have a hard time appreciating the communion of saints. As I said before, the highest honor and adoration goes to God alone; however, the very fact that we have natural bonds (with blood kin) and supernatural ones (in the family of the Church) demands some level of respect and affection.

What is the difference between showing honor and adoration?

Adoration is the term we properly use regarding the highest honor we show and this is directed to God. We recognize his Lordship over all creation. By honoring angels and saints we give glory to God who has worked wondrous deeds and has instilled divine virtues in them.

Does the bible say that we should honor angels?

Most certainly, it does. Three angels appeared to Abraham. His response was to bow his face to the ground and to honor them (Genesis 18:2; 19:1). Similarly, Joshua raised his eyes and saw what he at first took to be a man, standing over against him, holding a drawn sword and proclaiming, "I am a prince of the hosts of the Lord . . ." (Joshua 5:15). We read in Exodus 23:20, God saying: "Behold, I will send my angels who shall go before you. Take notice of him, and hear his voice and do not think him one condemned."

But, does not St. Paul say, "To God alone is due honor and praise"?

The apostle means that the highest honor and praise is reserved to God. Note what he says in Romans 12:10, "With honor meet each other."

What does it really mean to pray to saints?

It is a particular kind of prayer. Ultimately, it is a prayer of supplication that finds its ultimate source in God, himself. We are asking the saints to pray for us. Our prayers of adoration are reserved to God, all glory and praise is his.

Does the bible say it is permissible to ask the saints to pray for us?

Yes, it does. The bible tells us that there is a real value in requesting the prayers of people on earth and the prayers of the angels in heaven. This being the case, it is only logical that the saints, who reign with Christ in heaven and who are still a part of our family of faith, can pray and intercede for us. St. Paul makes this request: "I beseech you, therefore, brethren, through our Lord Jesus Christ, and by the charity of the Holy Spirit, that you help me in your prayers for me to God" (Romans 15:30). He said similar things in Ephesians 6:18 and Thessalonians 5:25.

Does the bible say anything about angels and saints praying for people who walk the earth?

There is evidence for this. Zechariah 1:12 documents an angel praying for the Jewish people: "Lord of hosts, how long will you not have mercy on Jerusalem, and on the cities of Judah against which you are angry." God heard and responded to the angel's prayer, saying: "You have spoken good words, consoling words . . . I will have mercy on Jerusalem." Note these words from the chief apostle: "And I will do my endeavor that after my death also you may often have prayers whereby you may keep a memory of these things." St. Peter wished to pray for his friends even after his death. The clincher that the saints pray for us is in the Book of Revelation where St. John saw four and twenty ancients "who fell down before the lamb and all had harps and golden vials full of odors which are the prayers of the saints."

But how can angels and saints be mediators when St. Paul tells us that "There is only one mediator between God and man," and his name is Jesus Christ?

Jesus is our Mediator. However, this does not rule out secondary intercessors who are assisted and used by Christ. Remember, St. Paul, himself, asked for prayers from his brethren.

Why not pray to God in a direct way, according to the fashion that Jesus taught us?

There are many instances where we do pray directly to God. However, we acknowledge that we do not come to God alone. Just as God called to himself a People of God in the Jewish nation, so too he summons a new people in the Church. We pray with and for one another. Death is no barrier to this solidarity. We beckon the saints to pray for our needs. There is a great humility in this form of prayer. We recognize our unworthiness and ask the saints to obtain for us that which may be just out of our grasp. Both prayer forms are recommended.

But if the dead are either asleep or too far off to hear us, then what use are our petitions?

The saints know rest in the Lord, but this does not mean that they have been relegated, even temporarily, to oblivion. Further, the ties that bind us, particularly our faith and love in Christ, transcend the barrier of death. There is a legitimate mystery here and yet we trust the Word of God, which testifies that angels and saints do, indeed, hear us. "There shall be joy before the angels of God upon one sinner doing penance" (Luke 15:10). The saints have joined the angels of heaven. They hear our voices.

But does not Jeremiah 17:5 say, "Cursed he who places his trust in man"?

The prophet only meant that trust in men should not displace trust in God. Note that God himself told us to observe and trust his angel (Exodus 23).

Do not Catholics go too far in calling various saints "our hope, our mercy," etc.?

These are merely signs of affection and thankfulness to our special friends among the saints. Such expressions should not be interpreted crudely as denying the singular place of God and his operation in our lives.

Why do Catholics pay special and heightened honor to the Virgin Mary?

  • She was chosen by God to be the Mother of our Savior. Should we not honor the mother of the one who has saved the world? Sure.
  • The appearance and the words of the angel honored Mary with titles befitting her dignity: "Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with thee, blessed art thou among women." Is it right to the echo the salutation of a heavenly messenger? Certainly.
  • Jesus desired that we take notice of his mother and honor her, saying to John from the cross, "See your mother." Are we obliged to carry out the last words of crucified Lord? Without question, this is the case.
  • The first Christians honored Mary with a most intense and intimate love. Should we do the same as brothers and sisters to Christ, adopted children of the Father, and spiritual children to Mary? Yes, the pattern and connection is clear.
  • After God himself, Mary is the most perfect model of purity, justice, and holiness for us to imitate. If Mary is the queen of the saints, then is her spiritual perfection worthy of imitation? Quite so.
  • Those who have honored her have been wondrously rewarded by God; the lame walked, the blind regain their sight, the sick recovered, etc. Practically speaking, would we be fools to ignore such a person and the incredible way that God continues to use her? In many ways, the miracles and messages attributed to her remind us that God is still very much aware and concerned about our plight.

Again, does it not defame God to give so much honor to a mere creature?

This honor we show her does not degrade God in the least. As a matter of fact, the respect and veneration we show Mary pleases God. We give glory to God in honoring the woman who was so wonderfully made free from sin and who said YES to God for all humanity.

Did the Virgin Mary have other children besides Jesus?

No, the bible calls her a "virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph . . . and the virgin's name was Mary." The Scriptures also tell us that she remained a virgin up to the birth of Jesus (Matthew 1:25). Her perpetual virginity was an accepted fact in the early Church community, taught by the Nicene Creed and the early fathers as "the glorious EVER virgin Mary."

But does this conflict with what the evangelist actually says, that "Joseph . . . knew her not till she brought forth her first born son"?

There is no conflict, just a problem with language and translation. The wording, "not till," does not mean that her virginity ended at that point or some time after. It merely stresses again that Jesus was specially conceived by divine intervention. As a sacred vessel for the presence of God, Joseph would do nothing to defile her. After the birth of Christ, and knowing full well the identity of his foster Son, Joseph and Mary lived a virginal marriage. The language here shares some similarity with Genesis 8:7: "The raven went forth from the ark and did not return TILL the waters dried up." The raven did not return at all. As with the virginity of Mary, it was a perpetual status. The same expression is used in 1 Kings 15:30.

But if Jesus is called Mary's FIRST BORN, does not this readily imply other children?

No, and again, language is a serious issue in biblical interpretation. The term "First born" was applied to the FIRST BORN of every Jewish woman, regardless of whether other children followed. A case in point is Joshua 17:1. The frequent mention of the brethren of Jesus finds several reliable explanations. There is evidence that in some cases it refers to cousins (especially when a woman other than Mary is mentioned as their mother) and in other instances it may simply be an extension of referring to his followers as his brethren.

Does the bible say that Mary was always free from original sin?

We read in Genesis 3:15: "I will put enmities between you and the woman, and your seed and her seed. He shall crush your head." The seed is interpreted as Christ Jesus, the woman is the Virgin Mary, and the serpent is Satan. Certain older Catholic renditions translated the last line here as "She shall crush your head." Thus, in statuary and other imagery, she is often envisioned stepping upon a serpent. This translation peculiarity is fortuitous in that modern scholarship tells us that a more exact rendering would be, "They [all the descendants of the woman] will strike at your head." The Mother of the Redeemer is now the Mother of the Redeemed. She is the image and model of the Church. They enmity between her sons and daughters against those in league with the devil is a perpetual one. Such an interpretation would not admit to even a momentary moment of reconciliation. She has always been, and always will be, the one made holy by Christ's saving grace-- a favor which reached from the cross backwards through history, to the very moment of her conception-- all so that the divine and all-holy one might pass through a sinless vessel. The angel's salutation affirms this truth, "hail full of grace." There is no space or vacuum in her for sin. The angel continues, "blessed art thou among women" (Luke 1:26,33). The holiness of Mary distinguishes from all other women.

Are there any other reasons that might prove that Mary was free from original sin?

  • It would have been unbecoming of an infinitely pure God to be incarnated in a woman who was or had been under the dominion of sin, even if just for a moment.
  • Christ takes his flesh from the flesh of Mary; as God and as untouched by sin, he could not assume a sinful flesh.
  • The Holy Spirit has guided the Church on this matter and thus it can be trusted.
  • Mary appeared at Lourdes in France and declared herself the IMMACULATE CONCEPTION. As verification of this message, healing water sprung mysteriously from the ground and as a lasting testimony thousands have been cured by it from all kinds of diseases.

More on Holy Orders


What exactly do Catholics believe about the power of their priests?

We believe that priests are so configured to Christ that they have a special power from God to confer in Christ's name the graces of redemption to men and women.

Does the Bible say anything about Christ commanding priests to distribute the graces of redemption?

It is clearly taught. St. Paul says, "To us is given the ministry of reconciliation." Our Lord commanded the apostles to go out and baptize all nations. They were to forgive sins and to commemorate the sacrifice of the cross for the sins of the world. Faithful to their ministry, they would pray over the sick, lay hands upon those in need of the Holy Spirit, etc. All this is evidence that God wished his apostles and priests to confer by these signs his divine favor and graces. The role of the minister of God cannot be reduced solely to preaching.

But is not Christ alone the mediator and dispenser of graces?

Assuredly, Christ is the central Mediator and the dispenser of his graces. This no one should deny. However, he distributes his graces through the ministry of priests.

Is not such a ministry part of the universal call given all believers in baptism?

No, this is not the case. We should not confuse our identity as members of a priestly people in the Church by virtue of baptism with that singular priesthood made possible by ordination. St. Paul attests to a distinction: "Now there are diversities of ministries, but of the same Lord." He goes on to say, "God indeed has set some in the Church, first, apostles; secondly, prophets; thirdly, doctors (teachers). All are not apostles, all are not prophets, all are not doctors."

But the bible says that we are all priests, does it not?

If such is strictly the case, then why did the apostles elect and ordain some men to be bishops and priests? Why were not all people ordained? Why did they not ordain women? And, why did St. Paul say that women should be silent in church? Baptismal priesthood is not ordained or sacerdotal priesthood. The priesthood of believers simply means that we all can sacrifice to God our prayers, good works and our hearts.

What do Protestants generally believe about the power of their ministers?

For the most part, they believe that their ministers possess no power whatsoever to distribute the graces of redemption. He is merely a preacher. According to this perspective, the ministers should not even pray for their people or bless them. If they do, then they are implying that they are intercessors and that they would have the priestly power to distribute the graces of Jesus Christ to their people.

Can a priest reconcile a sinner to God?

If the sinner is moved by faith and contrition, and receives the sacraments, then the priest can indeed reconcile him to God.

Why do Catholics cal their priests "Father," in contradiction to Christ's command to his disciples not to be called Fathers?

Implementing a form of speech known as Hebraic Hyperbole, our Lord did not mean that the term could not be used regarding our male parent or a special spiritual father. Rather, he meant that they should not allow themselves to be called "Father" to the exclusion of our almighty Father in heaven. God himself is our ultimate Father and our Teacher. However, if the term is used with humility and in submission to God, our Father, then it is permitted.

Does the bible say anything about priests receiving a special grace or power from God in ordination?

We read: "Neglect not the grace that is in you, which was given you by the imposition of the hands of priesthood" (Timothy 4:14). We also read: "I admonish you that you stir up the grace of God which is in you by the imposition of my hands" (Timothy 4:14). St. Paul warns Timothy to be cautious regarding whom he invites to this sacrament: "Impose not hands lightly on any man" (Timothy 5:22). We also recall Christ's words: "To me is given all power in heaven and on earth . . . as the Father has sent me so I send you . . . Whose sins you shall forgive they are forgiven them," etc. Christ sent his apostles with power, just as the Father sent him. St. Paul asserts, "We are the dispensers of the mysteries of Christ . . . and to us is given the ministry of reconciliation."

Did the apostles hand down this power and authority to others?

Yes, they did. The apostles prayed and imposed hands on Paul, and sent him out as the special apostle to the Gentiles. Such could also be said for Barnabas. Paul, in turn, imposed hands on Titus and Timothy. They imposed hands on others, and so on and so forth to the present day. "For this cause I left you in Crete . . . that you should ordain priests in every city, as I had appointed you" (Titus 1:5).

Why do Roman Catholic priests not marry?

Because the Church commands that her priests not marry.

Because even the apostles left their wives to follow Christ.

Because St. Paul exhorts priests to follow his example of the single life.

Because celibacy allows more time and energy for prayer, teaching, administration of the sacraments, visiting the sick, spreading the Gospel, leaving home and facing adversity, etc.

Because people would not so readily confess their sins to a married priest for fear that he would reveal them to his spouse.

Because it best protects the property and general interests of the Church.

St. Paul says in 1 Corinthians 9:5: "Have we not power to care about a woman, a sister, as well as the rest of the apostles, and the brethren of the Lord and Cephas?" St. Paul speaks of the women who followed the apostles to serve them and to do those works in the ministry reserved to women, but he does not mean women for the sake of marriage.

Was not the law of celibacy on made in 385 AD by Pope Ciricius?

He only commanded that it be more strictly enforced. This ruling existed long before this date. The Pope himself in that council called celibacy an institution of the apostles.

Would there not be less scandal if priests were married?

This is a fantasy. There are fewer scandals among celibate priests then among married men in general and even among married ministers. The only difference is that a fallen priest is exploited by the news while cases among others are usually ignored or deemed insignificant.

Honestly, is it not impossible to keep celibacy?

Honesty has nothing to do with it. Only a man of dark and unbridled passions would insinuate such a thing. There are many among the laity, of strong will and pure hearts, who keep celibacy. Such can be much easier for the priest to whom God gives special graces to observe his celibacy.

But, how can this stance not contradict St. Paul, himself, who says: "A bishop shall be of one wife"?

The apostle is simply saying that a man married twice should not be raised to the dignity of bishop. In those early days they had to select some married men for the priesthood because they could not find enough single men to administer the increasing number of the faithful.

How is this fair? After all, St. Paul says that it is better to marry than to burn.

"To burn," means to find great difficulty in preserving chastity. Such people, reasons St. Paul, should not become priests. Rather, they should get married. A simple temptation against chastity does not mean "to burn". Such temptations should be overcome.

How might one define Holy Orders?

It is a sacrament by which bishops, priests and deacons are ordained and receive the power and grace to perform their sacred duties.

Who administers the sacrament?

The bishop does so as the successor of the apostles.

What ministries must a man pass through prior to ordination?

The revised pattern is that within his educational and spiritual formation, he will be installed as a Reader and as an Acolyte. These are lay ministries, but they act as a preparation for ordination and the clerical state. Formerly, there were many other stages and the clerical state began with tonsure.

What are the three tiers of Holy Orders?

They are the diaconate, priesthood, and the episcopacy (bishop).

What are the deacon's duties?

The diaconate is an apostolic office of divine institution (Acts 6:1-7). Authority is granted to preach, to baptize, to administer Holy Communion, to proclaim the Gospel, to preach, and to assist the priest at Mass.

How is the ordination to the diaconate conducted?

During the Mass, the bishop imposes his hands upon the candidate, he is vested with stole and dalmatic, and the Book of the Gospels is presented to him.

What are the powers particular to priesthood?

He has the power to celebrate the sacrifice of the Mass, to forgive sins and to administer the other sacraments, with the exception of Confirmation (unless he is so delegated) and Holy Orders.

How is the ordination to the priesthood conducted?

The priesthood is also granted during Mass. The bishop instructs the person to be ordained concerning the duties of the priestly life. During the Litany of the Saints, he lies outstretched with his face on the floor. The bishop invites him forward and imposes hands upon his head. This is the crucial gesture, which imparts the priestly character. He is invested with the priestly stole and with the chasuble. The palms of his hands are anointed and he receives the sign of peace from the attending bishops and priests. He is then presented with bread and wine for celebration of the Eucharist.

What is the highest rank of priesthood?

The highest rank is that of bishop. He possesses the fullness of priesthood. A successor of the apostles, the bishop administers confirmation and holy orders, and has charge of a diocese. The consecrating bishop lays hands upon priest being elevated to the episcopacy. The crosier or bishop's staff is handed him as a sign of his office of shepherd and of his power to discipline. A ring is placed on his finger as a sign of his faith and fidelity to the Church. He also receives a mitre, which, like a helmet, signifies the courage and force with which he must proclaim the Gospel and defend the Church.

Thursday, September 16, 2004

More on Anointing of the Sick


Does the bible say anything about priests praying over the sick and anointing them with oil?

It most certainly does say something about this. "Is any man sick among you? Let him bring in the priests of the Church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord, and the prayer of faith shall save the sick man, and the Lord shall raise him up, and if he be in sins, they shall be forgiven him" (James 5:14-15). We also find this passage in Mark 6:12: " . . . and the apostles anointed many that were sick and healed them."

Is not the authority of the Letter of James rather dubious?

No, Christianity has acknowledged this book from Scripture from the earliest days. It is absolutely authentic, inspired and truthful. Only in the sixteenth century, namely with the Protestant reformer, Martin Luther, was it rejected since it contradicted his views regarding the unimportance of works in our salvation.

Have not some rightly argued that James meant faith by his use of the word "oil"?

Such a contention is silly. If James had meant faith, instead of oil, he would have said so plainly. His teaching reflected the practice of the apostles in anointing the sick with oil. This practice comes all the way through the centuries to today. It is an olive oil blessed by the bishop, usually on Holy Thursday.

What other sacraments are associated with that of anointing?

When applied to the dying, the anointing of the sick has been called Extreme Unction. If the person is conscious, it is usual for them to go to confession first. If not, the presumption is made that they would like the sacrament and are sorry for their sins. Certainly, if aware and able, any serious sins should be confessed. Following the anointing, and again if possible, the sick person would receive Holy Communion. These three sacraments are sometimes called the Last Rites.

How is it administered?

The sacrament is offered by the priest who first lays his hands upon the head of the person. then, anointing the forehead and hands, he prays: "Through this holy anointing may the Lord in his love and mercy help you with the grace of the Holy Spirit. [Amen.] May the Lord who frees you from sin save you and raise you up. [Amen.]

What are the effects?

It forgives some sins, remits temporal punishment due to sin, gives assistance to patiently suffer and to die a holy death, grants strength against the devil's temptations, and sometimes even restores physical health.

How should a room be traditionally prepared for these sacraments to the infirm?

A table is covered with a white cloth. A small crucifix stands between two candles. Along with these items, holy water and a glass of ordinary water may also be placed upon the table.

More on Marriage


Does the bible say that Christian marriage is a sacrament and more than a mere civil contract?

Yes, and we find the evidence from the mouth of Christ. The Lord tells us: "He who made man from the beginning, made male and female and the two shall be one flesh; therefore, now they are not two, but one flesh. What, therefore, God has joined together, let no man put asunder" (Matthew 19:4,5,6). St. Paul adds: "Husbands, love your wives, as Christ loved the Church, and delivered himself up for it . . . This is the great sacrament; but I speak in Christ and in the Church" (Ephesians 5:25,32).

What is the special grace that comes with marriage?

They are given the divine grace to join their hearts into a more intimate, more lasting, and more holy love. They are enabled to raise their children in reverence or holy fear and love of God.

Does the bible actually say that married people should not remarry while their spouse is alive?

Jesus made it quite clear: "For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife, and the two shall be one flesh . . . what, therefore, God has joined together, let no man put asunder" (Matthew 19:6).

Does the bible forbid divorce?

Yes, although many Churches, which profess Christ, have permitted it on their own authority. It is evidence that the Catholic Church is the true biblical Church and the one steadfast in Christ and his truths. Difficult teachings are not eliminated or ignored simply because they are difficult or out of fashion. A proper reading of Matthew 19 shows Christ's mind on the subject: "What, therefore, God has joined together, let no man put asunder." Then they ask Jesus, "Why then did Moses command to give a bill of divorce?" Our Lord responded: "Because Moses by reason of hardness of your heart permitted you to put away your wives. But from the beginning it was not so, and I say to you that whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for unlawful conduct (actually incest), and shall marry another, commits adultery. And he that shall marry her that is put away commits adultery." Again, St. Paul adds upon the subject: "But to them that are married, not I, but the Lord command that the wife depart not from her husband, and if she depart, that she remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband. For the woman that has a husband, while her husband lives, is bound to the law. But if her husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. Therefore, while her husband lives, she shall be called an adulteress, if she be with another man" (1 Corinthians 7: 10-11). Obviously the rights of the husband and the wife are here the same and the law holds for the husband, too.

Does the Catholic Church grant divorces?

No, although there is an annulment process which many Catholics pursue after a civil divorce. If it is determined that there was a serious impediment to a true marriage in the first instance, a marital union might be declared annulled. However, if the marriage was true, then it is indissoluble. If the first marriage is a valid sacrament, it can only end at the death of one of the spouses.

Why does the Church forbid marriages among relatives?

The prohibition in Matthew's Gospel is certainly part of the answer. Besides violating the natural order, such bonds often prove wanting and the offspring deficient in mental and bodily development.

Why is there the custom of publishing banns?

Often made optional today, or dispensed by lawful authority, banns were published as a public announcement. Not only did this notify a parish community, but it also prevented perilous elopements, and invited general information about their freedom to marry. After such a publication, one would quickly discover if there was a prior promise from either of the parties to marry someone else of if there was a serious impediment to marriage.

What are the duties of husband and wife?

They are to live together in peace, love and fidelity. They are to raise their children as good Christians, sharing each other's joys and sorrows.

How is this sacramental covenant enacted?

Taking each other's right hand, they render their vows and consent before the priest or deacon. The priest blesses them and confirms their union. The priest witnesses the marriage as the couple themselves are the actual ministers of the sacrament. The rings are blessed by the priest and they place them on each other's fingers with the appropriate prayer. A Nuptial Blessing comes at the end of the service. If it takes place during Mass, and they are both Catholics, they will also receive Holy Communion. The marriage is fully consummated when they go home and share the marital act.

Liturgical Matters


Why does the Catholic Church have so many ceremonies?

The ceremonies and rituals assist in our lifting up of our hearts to God. The instrumentation of visible symbols helps us to grasp the invisible mysteries of faith.

Does the bible approve of such things?

The Old Law prescribed many Jewish ceremonials. Christ made use of many such rituals and introduced his own ceremonies.

What is the altar?

The altar stands for the table upon which Jesus instituted the sacrament of the Eucharist.

Why is the altar often so imposing and made of marble or stone?

While other materials may also make up the altar, the traditional altar was fashioned in the likeness of the martyrs' tombs upon which the Mass was often said in the early Church.

Why is the altar covered with linen cloths?

It serves as a decorative cover giving reverence to the holy sacrifice, to help insure that if spilt no precious blood shall fall to the ground, and as a vestment for Christ symbolized there.

Why is there a cross (usually a crucifix) near the altar?

It is a visible reminder that the sacrifice of the Mass is an unbloody re-presentation of the sacrifice of the cross.

What is the chalice?

This is the cup into which the priest pours wine that is to be transformed into the blood of Christ.

Why do priests wear particular vestments at the altar?

The vestments remind us that the priest is a living representative of Christ at the altar. He acts in the very "person of Christ," head of the Church. God himself prescribed vesture to be worn in the divine services of the Old Covenant.

What is the amice and what is its meaning?

This is a shoulder cloth that serves practical purposes of covering the priest's ordinary clerical attire and keeping the neck of certain albs (the white gown) clean. At one time it was even worn over the head as a cover against the cold. It signifies "the helmet of salvation" (Ephesians 6:17), with which the priest arms himself against devilish assaults.

What is the significance of the alb (a long white garment)?

It signifies the purity of body and soul with which a priest should possess before approaching the altar.

What does the cincture (robe worn around his waist) symbolize?

It calls to mind his priestly chastity and continence.

What does the stole signify?

It is a vesture of dignity, as with the ancient Roman senators, symbolizing his honor and power.

What is the purpose of the chasuble (garment worn over all the rest)?

Just as the altar as a symbol for Christ is dressed, so too is the priest. The chasuble reminds us that he puts on Christ in a singular fashion. He is Christ, the one high priest, at the altar. It signifies the yoke of the Lord and reminds us all that to follow Christ means to take up the cross.

Suppressed today, although still implemented in the traditional liturgy is the maniple (a band hanging from the left arm); what is it about?

It is a symbol of penance, as well as the various cares and responsibilities of the priestly vocation.

What do the different colors of vestments mean?

WHITE implies innocence and is particularly festive; it is used on feasts of the Lord and saints who were not martyrs.

RED signifies martyrdom and is used at commemorations of the Passion, Pentecost and on the feast of martyrs.

GREEN is used during Ordinary Time and represents the hope of eternal life.

VIOLET signifies penance and to some degree royalty.

BLACK is rarely used these days; however, it can replace white or violet at funerals and may still be used on All Souls Day. It expresses sorrow and morning.

GOLD is a variation upon white and points to even greater festivity.

What do the candles beside the altar signify?

They are another symbol for Jesus who is the Light of the World. We are reminded that his charity should always burn in our hearts. They also call to mind the first Christians who offered up the sacrifice in the dark and cold catacombs.

What is the meaning of incense?

It is a symbol of prayer that rises up to heaven as a sweet odor before God (Psalm 141:2).

Why do the priest and people make the sign of the cross at Mass?

It reminds us of the death and sufferings of Christ on the cross. It also dedicates that activity to the Lord and sanctifies it. Associated with grace and blessings, it is often made over people and things.

What is the bending of the knee, the bent head, and the kissing of holy objects about?

They are signs of veneration, and when directed to God, of adoration, respect, and homage to the presence of Christ upon the altar and/or in the tabernacle.

What are the principal parts of Mass?

Traditionally they were catalogued as the Offertory, Consecration, and Communion. The revised liturgy has much reduced the Offertory and simply calls it the Preparation of the Gifts. Renewed interest in the Scriptures would have many say that the two main parts of the Mass are the Liturgy of the Word and the Liturgy of the Eucharist. Having said this, the center of gravity will always be upon the Eucharist. At the words of consecration the priest changes the bread and wine into the living body and blood of Christ. God makes himself present upon our altars. Holy Communion is our reception of the bread of life and the cup of salvation.

What ingredients compose the host that is to be consecrated?

It is unleavened bread made from pure wheaten flour and water.

What is the tabernacle?

This is the container, either upon its own altar table or in a wall, where the Blessed Sacrament is reserved.

What is the Introit?

Usually replaced by a musical piece on Sundays, it is the Entrance Antiphon of the Mass.

What is the Confiteor?

It is a confession of fault and sin; in other words, of our unworthiness as we begin the Mass.

What is the Gloria?

It is a solemn song of praise to the goodness and majesty of God.

What is the Liturgy of the Word?

It is composed of various readings and their application is a homily. The pattern on Sundays is as follows: Old Testament Reading, Responsorial Psalm, New Testament Reading, Alleluia and/or Verse, Gospel, Homily, and Prayer of the Faithful (General Intercessions).

What do we understand by the Profession of Faith at Mass?

This is the Creed given to the universal Church at Nicea in 325 AD and again at the council of Constantinople in 381 AD. It is a formal confession of the Catholic faith.

What is the meaning of the priest pouring a drop of water into the wine?

It signifies the union of the divine and human natures in Christ, and it represents the water that flowed from the side of Christ.

What is the purpose of the Lavabo?

It is to clean the priest's hands and prepare them to touch the Sacred Host. It signifies an inward purity of soul with which we should offer this holy sacrifice to God.

What is the Preface?

It is a solemn hymn of praise and thanksgiving just before the canon of the Mass proper.

What is the Sanctus?

It is the thrice-repeated salutation of the angels in heaven: Holy, Holy, Holy.

What does the word "Canon" mean?

It refers to the anaphora or Eucharistic prayer used at Mass. The oldest in the West is the first Eucharistic prayer, the Roman Canon. The word "canon" means rule and here points to the unchangeable rule or manner in which the holy sacrifice is daily commemorated. The Roman canon had remained unchanged for almost 1,300 years prior to the Second Vatican Council. The most essential part of the canon, as with those in the newer ones, finds its source in the words of our Lord, himself. Of course, the traditions of the apostles and church fathers, as well as the reverent regulations of popes, has played a part in the development of liturgy, too.

Why does the priest extend his hand over the gifts?

This action parallels a similar gesture in the old law where the priest was required to lay his hands upon the sacrificial offerings as a sign that the animal now bore the sins and had to expiate them by death. At Mass, the extension of the hands signifies that Christ is the Lamb of God who took upon himself all sins of the world.

What does the priest do at the consecration?

The priest says what Christ said at the Last Supper: "Take this, all of you, and eat it: this is my body which will be given up for you. . . . Take this all of you, and drink from it: This is the cup of my blood, the blood of the new and everlasting covenant. It will be shed for you and for all so that sins may be forgiven. Do this in memory of me."

What is the effect of these words?

When they are spoken, the bread and wine are changed into the true and living body and blood of Christ.

Why does the priest raise up the bread and chalice?

Not only does it better allow the people to see, he lifts up the host (not simply bread) and then the chalice with the precious blood, as an invitation to adore our Lord and Savior now present under the forms of bread and wine.

What are the two prayers, which immediately follow the consecration?

The first is a Vatican II interpolation of the words associated with the consecration, "Mysterium fidei," or THE MYSTERY OF FAITH. The congregation offers one of several memorial acclamations, which affirm that our Eucharistic Lord is the same one, whom "Dying [you] destroyed our death, rising [you] restored our life. Lord Jesus, come in glory." The anamnesis or memorial prayer is next. By recalling Christ, we make present in the Eucharist both his person and saving activity. We affirm that this is a "holy and perfect sacrifice, the bread of life and the cup of eternal salvation."

How does the priest pray for the dead?

He prays that the faithful departed may also receive from the fruits of the Mass and be granted "Light, happiness, and peace" in God's presence. Sometimes the priest will even mention the dead by name. This is called the memento of the dead. The congregation should pray also for their deceased relatives and friends at this stage of the liturgy.

Why do we offer the Lord's Prayer after the Eucharistic prayer?

It is because as children of God we are entitled to call upon God as "Our Father," and on account of the mediation of Christ who brings our prayer to God in heaven. We are confident that God will hear our prayer and give us what we need for body and soul.

Why does the priest break the host?

The fracturing of the priest's host reminds us of the passion and death of Christ when his soul parted from his body. A fragment of the consecrated host is mingled with the precious blood as a sign that Christ is here present as our Redeemer risen from the dead.

What is the Agnus Dei?

This is the "Lamb of God" prayer that echoes Scripture in repeating three times that he is the lamb of sacrifice "who takes away the sins of the world." It is a prayer for mercy.

What is with the sign of peace?

It is a ritual gesture, not simply a handshake, where we extend Christ's peace to one another. We are admonished not to come to the altar unless we are reconciled with one another. St. Paul tells us: "Salute one another with a holy kiss" (Romans 16:16). That is why it is sometimes called the kiss of peace.

What does the response of "Amen" mean at communion?

It is a faith profession and means "Truly" or "Surely." It is an affirmation of the priest's words, "The body of Christ," or "The blood of Christ." More than that, it also expresses acceptance and unity with the Church that offers the sacrament. In other words, a person is saying that I accept all that the Church holds as true, the Holy Father and all the bishops in union with him, etc. Not wanting to make hypocrites of people, we do not invite non-Catholics to receive. However, we do ask them to hunger with us for a more full unity and if possible to make a spiritual communion.

How is Mass concluded?

The priest does a post communion prayer, renders a Trinitarian blessing and then either the priest or deacon says the words of dismissal: "The Mass is ended, go in peace."

How is the blessing offered?

Using his right hand he makes an outward sign of the cross, saying, "May almighty God bless you, the Father, and the Son, + and the Holy Spirit." The people answer, "Amen."

More on the Holy Eucharist


Where do we receive Holy Communion?

Communion is usually distributed in church; however, the sick may receive it in the hospital or in their homes.

How is it administered in church?

There are two ways that the host is given at present in the Roman Rite: upon the tongue and in the hand. Various Eastern rites also have their own manner of distribution, including the spoon or a sacred tube. The priest holds up the host before the communicant and says, "The Body of Christ." The communicant responds, "Amen," thus acknowledging the real presence of Christ and the full authority and authenticity of the Catholic faith that makes this holy encounter possible. The unity here between the communicant, Christ and the Church is intensely intimate. It is for this reason that one who is not of our faith or who is in mortal sin should not receive the sacrament. It would turn the "Amen," no less than a faith profession, into a lie. The person opens his mouth and puts out his tongue slightly. The minister places the host upon the tongue. The communicant immediately closes his moth, signs himself with the cross and moves back to his place in the church. Those receiving in the hand make a throne of their left hand in their right for Christ the King. They do not put their hands side by side in the image of a bird. Nor should they pick at the host as an insect would with its pinchers. Fingers should be together and nothing should be carried. If a communicant has a rosary in their hand, a purse under the arm, or a baby held close -- he or she should not receive in the hand but upon the tongue. Having received in the hand, we step aside but still facing the altar, pick up the host in our right hand and put it into our mouth. We make the sign of the cross, and then, and only then, we turn and walk back to our place. We do not walk away with the host in our hand. We do not make a hasty sign of the cross as we rush to our pew. The minister of the sacrament must be able to see the communicant put the host into the mouth.

Why is Holy Communion sometimes designated as Viaticum?

It applies to Holy Communion given to the sick as spiritual sustenance and as saving food. It helps to prepare them for the final leg of their pilgrimage into eternity.

Why are people sometimes blessed with the sacrament?

Benediction is offered with the Blessed Sacrament because it is really and truly Jesus. Thus, blessing people with the sacrament is quite literally Jesus blessing the people just as he did when he walked the earth.

How is such a benediction usually conducted?

While a hymn in honor of the Blessed Sacrament is sung, the priest, dressed in a cope and humeral veil, incenses the monstrance (a display container placed upon the altar). After this sign of adoration, he blesses the people with the Blessed Sacrament by making a sign of the cross with it over them.

Why have there been processions with the Blessed Sacrament?

It is a touching and solemn profession of our faith, giving adoration to our Savior in the consecrated host.

What is the meaning of the Vigil Light perpetually burning next to the tabernacle containing the consecrated hosts?

It is a visual reminder of the abiding presence of Jesus in the church and of our worship that is everywhere and always due him. The Lord has not abandoned us. One faithful critic claimed that it is not unlike one's mother leaving a light burning in the window. Jesus is always there for us, ready to receive us back.

Wednesday, September 15, 2004

The Church Year


What is the meaning of Advent?

This season of four weeks before Christmas represents the four thousand years (according to the Scriptural reckoning) that mankind had to wait for the coming of the Redeemer.

What is the object of Advent?

We become aware of ourselves as spiritual Jews, recalling the advent of Christ's first appearance while awaiting his Second Coming. It should light the spark of desire for this definitive encounter and for the graces he gives us as our Savior and Redeemer. Advent prepares us for the birth of Christ.

Why do we call Jesus' birthday Christmas?

It is because the Church celebrates the festive day with Masses that specially commemorate the birth of our Lord.

Why are there three different Masses traditionally offered for Christmas?

It is seen as a threefold act of thanksgiving to the divine persons of the Blessed Trinity who participated in our redemption.

What is the feast of the Presentation of the Lord?

On the fortieth day after Christ's birth, Mary, in obedience to the law, offered her divine Son to his heavenly Father. It was once called the Purification because Mary offered the required clean oblation in the temple.

Why is it also called Candlemas Day?

It is because the priest blesses candles on this day. Candles are symbols for Jesus who is the Light of the World. Simeon proclaimed him to be the light of enlightenment of the Gentiles (Luke 11:32). Candles are blessed on this day with beautiful prayers and hymns: "May we who carry them to praise your glory walk in the path of goodness and come to the light that shines for ever." A procession is made to the church where Mass will be offered.

What is done on Ash Wednesday?

Ashes are blessed by the priest and placed on the heads of the faithful.

What makes up the ashes?

They are the remnants from blessed palm used the previous year. The ashes remind us that our bodies are destined to soon return to dust. That is why the priest says: "Remember, man, you are dust and to dust you will return."

What are the ceremonies of Passion (Palm) Sunday?

It is a pious custom to cover the crucifix, statues, and pictures in violet to represent the brief time before the passion that Jesus hid from the Jewish authorities, following his terrible humiliation by them in the temple. Since it is also Palm Sunday, we also celebrate Christ's triumphant entrance into Jerusalem. Palms are blessed in the church. The Jewish people greeted Jesus with palm branches and hailed him as their king. We know, of course, that he was not the kind of king they wanted and that Jesus really came to Jerusalem to die.

Why is the last week of Lent called Holy Week?

It is because we specially commemorate the events making up our redemption. Many graces are given us in this most holy time.

What takes place during Mass on Holy Thursday?

The Church commemorates the institution of the Eucharist. As a special sign of joy, the Gloria is sung and bells are rung during its recital. Extra hosts are consecrated for special reservation that evening and for communion on Good Friday. The Eucharist is carried in procession to the repository at a side altar. The organ and bells are now silent until the Gloria on Holy Saturday. This expresses the deep bereavement of the faith community over the passion and death of Christ.

Why is this the customary day for the consecration of holy oils?

Although sometimes moved to another day like Tuesday (for practical reasons), the bishop consecrates the oils that are used at baptism, confirmation, anointing of the sick, and certain consecrations. Thursday is chosen since it is the day that Jesus instituted the priesthood and made the apostles dispensers of his graces through the sacraments. Priests renew the promises.

Why are the altars stripped after Holy Thursday Mass?

This indicates our sorrow at the pitiful exposure of our Lord during his scourging and crucifixion.

What does the washing of the feet signify?

This reminds us of the deep humility of Christ. He washed the feet of his apostles before instituting the Eucharist. This reminded them of the purity and humility of heart that should be theirs before receiving Holy Communion.

What are the observances for Good Friday?

This is not a feast day, and no Mass is said. There may be special readings of the passion, Stations of the Cross, and veneration of the cross. We remember the death of Jesus. Various supplications are prayed.

Why do priests prostrate themselves at the foot of the altar on this day?

It expresses our profound grief at the suffering and death of Jesus.

What does the Church pray for in the great Supplications?

In the context of solemn petitions, the priest prays for the Church, the Holy Father, the bishops, the clergy and laity, the country, those preparing for baptism and/or reception, the suffering, separated brethren, Jews and other non-Christian people of faith, etc. We actually dare to pray that they might share in the fruits of Christ's saving death. After all, our Lord died for all men and women.

How is the veneration of the cross conducted?

The priest holds up a cross at three areas in the church, the back, middle, and front. If veiled, he reveals another of its three points as he moves toward the sanctuary. He proclaims: "This is the wood of the cross on which hung the Savior of the world." The people respond, "Come, let us worship."

How is the cross worshipped or adored?

The priest lays the uncovered cross before the altar, then he kneels and kisses it. Traditionally, he would kneel three times at different distances and would finally kiss the wounds on the figure (corpus).

What does the choir traditionally sing?

They sing the reproaches that Christ must have made to his ungrateful people on this day.

Why is no Mass celebrated on Good Friday?

It would be unbecoming to celebrate the UNBLOODY renewal of the sacrifice of the cross on the day we commemorate the BLOODY sacrifice of the cross. Also, every Mass makes really present the saving activity and presence of our RISEN Lord. Today we remember the shadows and not the light directly.

What does Holy Saturday bring to mind?

Many things come to mind. Obviously the silence and repose in the Lord's borrowed tomb and his descent to the limbo of the fathers (the righteous dead who awaited their Savior). But also, the festivities of the evening are also pressing upon us. We will soon celebrate our Easter joy.

What are the services for Holy Saturday?

The most elaborate liturgy of the year it is also the most beautiful and profound. There is the blessing of the new fire and the lighting of the paschal candle. There are a whole series of readings that trace our salvation history. There is also an incredible Easter Proclamation called the Exsultet. The Litany of the Saints is recited and baptismal faith is reaffirmed. A blessing is made over the baptismal water in preparation for the initiation and reception of new members into the faith.

What does the blessed fire of the candle signify?

The paschal candle is a symbol for Christ. Extinguished on Good Friday, it is restored brand new (resurrected) on Holy Saturday. The fire of the candle, from which other candles in the church are lit, signifies Christ as the Light of the World who dispels the darkness and gives warmth against the cold world and sin. Five incense grains are pressed into the candle representing the five wounds of Christ.

How is the baptismal water blessed in this celebration?

A whole series of Old Testament prophesies that point to baptism is read and prayers are made for the neophytes and those who reaffirm their faith. After the blessing and renewal of baptismal promises, the priest sprinkles the people. During the blessing, the paschal candle is dipped three times into the water as an invocation of the sanctifying power of the Holy Spirit. The water reminds us that the waters of baptism cleanse the world of sin.

What does the Church celebrate at Mass on this day?

The Church celebrates the resurrection of Christ. The Gloria is chanted, bells are rung, and the solemn Alleluia is sung.

What does the word Easter mean?

Easter or "East star" is derived from the rising of the sun or the resurrection of Jesus. It has also been called Pascha, a name taken from the Jewish festival when a lamb was slain in memory of the blood of the lamb that saved the first born of the Israelites. Jesus is the new Lamb of God who was slain on the cross and whose blood will save us.

What is the Ascension?

Forty days after Easter we commemorate Christ's triumphant ascent into heaven.

What ceremony is peculiar to this day?

It is customary to extinguish the paschal candle, symbolizing the departure of Christ from earth to his Father in heaven.

What is Pentecost?

The is the commemoration of the descent of the Holy Spirit and it traditionally occurs ten days after the Ascension, or fifty days after Easter. We celebrate it on Sunday.

What are the Holy Days of obligation?

In the United States they are as follows:

Solemnity of Mary - Jan. 1
Ascension Thursday - (40 days after Easter)
Assumption of Blessed Virgin Mary - Aug. 15
All Saints - Nov. 1
Immaculate Conception - Dec. 8
Christmas - Dec. 25 Canada: Holy Days are Christmas and Solemnity of Mary

What is Ordinary Time?

This is a name given to the liturgical time outside of the seasons of Advent, Christmas, Lent, and Easter. Of course, in a sense, no time is ordinary. Every day and every liturgy is a wondrous opportunity to grow closer to the Lord and to live out our discipleship.

More on Confirmation


How is confirmation administered?

While a priest usually has faculties to confirm a convert, along with baptizing them and giving them first Holy Communion, usually the bishop is the minister of the sacrament. The bishop imposes his hands upon them and beseeches the Holy Spirit to descend with his sevenfold gifts. He anoints them with sacred chrism in the sign of the cross upon the forehead. This anointing points toward a spiritual character that is offered by the Spirit of God. The cross stands for our redemption and our willingness to enter into the passion, death and resurrection of Jesus. Accompanying the anointing are these words: "N., be sealed with the Gift of the Holy Spirit." The candidate may choose to use his baptismal name or of another patron saint.

What is the oil used?

It is a sacred chrism (possessing balm or a scent) blessed by the bishop during Holy Week, traditionally on Holy Thursday but nowadays often done earlier to ease schedules so that more priests can concelebrate the Mass and renew their priestly promises.

What does it signify?

The sweet fragrance signifies the sweetness of virtue, displacing the corruption of sin with the healing presence of Christ. It will strengthen the candidate for the struggle against the enemies of Christ and of the Church. As the older language would infer, we become an adult in the Church and a soldier for Christ.

Why is the sign of the cross made upon the head?

It is to emphasize that the Christian should never be ashamed of the cross, but to confess his faith in Christ crucified without regard to human opinion or persecution.

More on Confession


Who can forgive sins?

Only God can forgive sins, and those to whom he has given the power to do so.

To whom did God give such a power?

The Scriptures reveal that Jesus gave this power to his apostles. We read in John 20:22,23: "Jesus breathed on the apostles and said: 'Receive the Holy Spirit; whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them and those you shall retain, they are retained.'" Our Lord says also says, "To me is given all power in heaven and on earth, as my Father has sent me, so I also send you" (John 20:21). Jesus was sent into the world to forgive sins, and so he similarly sent the apostles.

Instead of confession, maybe this meant that priests could forgive sins in baptism?

The bible makes a clear distinction between the sins forgiven by baptism and those afterwards. Regarding the former, we are told, "Every one of you be baptized unto the remission of sins"; as for the latter, "Whose sins you shall forgive they are forgiven them."

Maybe Christ forgives sins, but not priests?

Jesus Christ does forgive our sins, provided that we confess them to a priest and if we have the opportunity to do so.

The Scriptures assert that the forgiveness of sins shall be preached to all nations; if mercy is granted in preaching, why is confession necessary?

The proclamation of forgiveness points to the remission of sins through baptism, confession, or any other means instituted by him.

Does not the biblical notion of forgiving sins apply to the excommunication of sinners or their restoration?

The apostles are given a two-fold power. First, they can forgive sins as our Lord makes clear, "Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them." Second, they are given the authority to excommunicate; Jesus says, "Whatsoever you shall bind on earth, shall be bound in heaven; and whatsoever you shall loose on earth, shall be loosed in heaven."

Acts states: "Do penance, and every one of you be baptized . . . unto the remission of sins"; thus, are not sins forgiven by doing penance and by being baptized?

The text here is speaking about the sins committed prior to baptism. Evidently the group being addressed was not yet baptized.

If Mary Magdalene can have her sins forgiven because she "loved much" then perhaps all sins are similarly forgiven?

Mary Magdalene's outward display of great sorrow in her confession of Jesus brings about the forgiveness of her sins by Christ (who knew her sins). It is not love that is sufficient, but sorrow, confession if possible, satisfaction and a firm resolve not to sin again. Few priests are given the supernatural power to read souls; thus, unlike Jesus, the priest cannot know what your sins are unless you tell him. This allows the priest to apply an appropriate penance and to give adequate counsel.

If confession is legitimate, why does the bible remain silent about it?

It is not silent. Christ's stipulation, "Whose sins you shall forgive," and "Whose sins you shall retain," imply that we should confess our sins. The historical fact that the early Christians and Catholics during the last two thousand years have confessed their sins, is proof that Christ taught the apostles that sins should be confessed.

But St. Paul said, "Prove yourself before eating of this bread," not "Go to confession." Is there not a real clash?

St. Paul meant that we should be proved according to the teaching of Christ. In other words, we are to prove and to examine our conscience. If we discover any sins, then we should confess them before "eating of this bread." Certainly, St. Paul would not contradict Jesus who commanded the apostles to forgive sins.

As we say in the Lord's Prayer, "Forgive us our trespasses as we forgive those who trespass against us," are not we forgiven by forgiving others?

It means that if we want our heavenly Father to forgive our sins, then we must forgive our neighbor. This is more than a precondition connected to human activity. God is not crudely bargaining with us. This line has everything to do with conversion or transformation into a new Christ. We are to imitate and to manifest the loving mercy of God in our very selves. By forgiving others, we precisely become the types of persons who are open to the graces of mercy ourselves. God can use us in ushering in his kingdom. We grow in holiness because we become revelatory to the face and presence of God. Ultimately, the Father will look upon us and see his Son living in us. He will give us a share in the eternal life that Christ merits on our behalf.

If sins can readily be forgiven, will it not entice people to easily relapse into sin?

No, because a good confession demands true sorrow for sin and a firm intention to avoid sin in the future. The more a sinner experiences and expresses his sorrow in confession, the less likely will he sin again. This sorrow is more than just "feeling" sorry. It reflects a real remorse over what our sins have accomplished. Our sins inhibit our transformation in Christ, deprive us of grace, and threaten us with the loss of heaven and the pains of hell. While fear of punishment illustrates imperfect contrition, we are all to strive for perfect contrition. This requires that we be conscious of the dishonor our sins bring upon God for whom we are created. They strike down our Savior upon Calvary (often imaged in the Sacred Heart devotion).

Can it be said that the apostles went to confession?

We certainly know that our Lord told his apostles to forgive sins; no doubt, if they committed any, they forgave each other's sins.

Can a priest charge money for forgiving sins?

No, this would be a great crime called simony. Severe punishments would be inflicted upon any priest who would dare something so offensive.

Can a priest forgive a thief who has no intention to return stolen goods?

No, the stolen property, if possible, must be restored to the lawful owner or at least a promise must be given that restoration will be made. Only then is the priest at liberty to absolve the sin.

Does the bible distinguish any sins as mortal?

It most certainly does. The bible tells us that some sins deserve death and that they exclude sinners from the kingdom of heaven. St. Paul states in Galatians 5:19: "Those who commit such sins . . . shall not inherit the kingdom of heaven." St. Paul enumerates a number of serious or mortal sins in 1 Corinthians 6:9. Exclusion from the kingdom of God literally means damnation.

Does the bible mention any sins as venial (more easily forgiven)?

Again, the answer is yes. "The just man falls seven times, and rises again" (Proverbs 24:16). Evidently it is possible for a "just" man to commit certain sins and not to forfeit his status. However, if a person commits a mortal sin, he can no longer be considered righteous or just. Also see James 3:2.

Is there a clear biblical teaching that God punishes mortal sins with temporal and eternal punishments?

This is the case. David was guilty of murder, which merited the pains of hell (2 Samuel 12:9). Nathan warned him of his mortal peril. David repents: "I have sinned against the Lord." Nathan responds as the voice of God: "The Lord has also taken away your sin," that is, the eternal punishment of hell. Nathan continues: "You shall not die. Nevertheless, because you have given occasion to the enemies of the Lord to blaspheme, for this thing the child that is born to you shall surely die." This I clearly temporal punishment.

How is the Sacrament of Penance administered?

It is very simple. The ritual usually begins with the sign of the cross. The penitent will often ask for a blessing from the priest at the beginning. Next, he confesses his sins, the priest might offer some fatherly advice, a penance is imposed, and absolution is given.

What are the essential words of absolution?

"God, the Father of mercies, through the death and resurrection of his Son has reconciled the world to himself and sent the Holy Spirit among us for the forgiveness of sins; through the ministry of the Church, may God give you pardon and peace, and I absolve you from your sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, + and of the Holy Spirit. Amen."

Sunday, September 12, 2004

Is Peter Really the Rock of the Church? (part 2)

Second Response

While there are legitimate academic questions to be studied and resolved regarding papal jurisdiction, the email critic falsely contended that my few comments stretched certain points beyond credulity. He viewed the Church's claims to be a fabrication and suggested that we had inserted our own peculiar ideas into the Word of God. In this vein, he compared Catholic biblical interpretation to the Supreme Court's insertion of a right to privacy, i.e. for abortion in the tragic "Roe vs. Wade" decision. I brushed his association of this matter as non-topical. (Coincidentally, the lady in question in this infamous case, came over to the pro-life position and recently became a Roman Catholic).

To my absolute surprise he quoted a Catholic historian from the middle of the last century who claimed that papal prerogatives were read back into the Scriptural texts and taught as doctrine comparatively late in the life of the Catholic Church. While Professor Dollinger showed great promise, he made three attempts at writing a general history of the Church and left much of his work unfinished. He is hardly a credible authority, although his name has conveniently appeared in the anti-Catholic rhetoric of certain ill-equipped protagonists to the Church. Dollinger quickly found himself in conflict with the neo-Scholastics and with the Roman Curia. It has been surmised that his Germanic prejudices propelled him to support Prussian nationalism and antagonism against the papacy. His problematical conclusions on the doctrine of Infallibility and papal temporal power led to his formal excommunication by the first Vatican Council.

He then made the dogmatic claim that the fathers of the Church (in light of Matthew 16:18 & John 21:17) did not believe or teach papal primacy. That was untrue and more than a little bit absurd. St. Ambrose (397 AD) said, echoing the tradition he himself had inherited, "Ubi Petrus, ibi Ecclesia," (Where there is Peter, there is the Church). Making an analogy, he contended, "where the living trunk is, there is the tree." Where we discover the center, we find the circle; where the foundation stone is, we see the building. Peter is the visible head of the Church who shepherds the flock of Christ. Christ is our invisible and supreme head. Where we find one, we find the other. Ultimately, where we find Christ, we encounter salvation, itself. Peter is given the keys to the kingdom.

I told him that he was correct that Catholics are duty-bound to interpret the Catholic truths and Scriptures in a way faithful to the unanimous consent of the fathers-- in other words, the early Church. (If he accepted this, then I suggested that it was illogical not to accept the Eucharist and priesthood about which they preached and wrote. This pertinent fact invalidated his whole argument from tradition. He had erred in his use of both primary and secondary sources. The limitations of time and email itself restricted my response but I felt dutybound to try.

I sought to give a few instances to prove that he was wrong about testimony from the early Church:

Tertullian states: "Nothing could be hidden from Peter, called the rock, as it was upon him as upon a foundation stone that the Church was built; from Peter I say, who received they keys of the kingdom of heaven, with power to bind and to loosen on earth and in heaven." Elsewhere he states: "The Lord gave the keys to Peter, and by Peter to the Church" (Praescrips, No. 22, Scorp.)

The genius Origen asserts: "though the Church is built upon all the Apostles, Peter nevertheless is her principal foundation and the very solid rock upon which Christ has built her." He also says: "Peter received the supreme power to feed the sheep" (from his Homilies). He goes on to say, speaking about the papal office and succession: "Though our Lord gave to all the Apostles the power to bind and to loosen, yet, in order that unity should come from the authority of one person alone, He spoke to Peter and to him alone, when He said: 'Thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.'"

An incident of importance would arise in the Nestorian crisis, which threatened to divide Christ into two Sons, one human and the other divine. When the intervention of Rome was requested and Pope Leo's tome to Flavin, bishop of Constantinople, was read at the Council of Chalcedon (451 AD), the bishops spontaneously exclaimed: "This is the belief of our Fathers, this is the belief of the Apostles. It is thus that we believe; it is thus that all orthodox Christians believe. Anathema to him who will not so believe! It is Peter who has spoken to us through Leo." And later, the confirmation of the acts of the Council is requested from the Holy Father "in order that he may supply by his authority that which may be wanting to the authority of his children."

Here are a few words from Pope Leo the Great himself (toward the end of the patristic period) speaking about his sacred trust and emphasizing his power: "Peter alone was chosen to be placed at the head of all the Apostles and all the Fathers of the Church. Though there are many priests among the people of God, yet Peter rules them all as Christ governs them in the first place. It is a great and wonderful part of His divine power that God in his exceeding goodness gives to this man; if God wished to impart some of it to the other leaders in the Church, it was always through Peter that they received what God did not refuse them" (Sermon 3).

What other ancient authorities back up the Catholic position? Let me just list them: Eusebius of Caesarea, St. Hilary of Poitiers, St. Gregory Nazianzen, St. Ephrem, St. Epiphanius, St. Basil, St. Ambrose, St. John Chrysostom, St. Jerome, St. Augustine, St. Eucher, Bishop of Lyons, and many other fathers and writers of the fourth and fifth centuries. Ancient lists giving the early succession of Popes also give evidence of the continuing ministry of Peter in the bishops of Rome.

I remarked that the critic's fundamentalist literalism against the importance of Christ's speaking Aramaic in preference for a convenient Greek text was amusing. Why? Because, on one hand he denied the linguistic evidence of a Hebrew saying in preference to the Greek translation, and on the other, he probably accepted the Protestant canon of the Old Testament that is based not on the Greek texts but upon the later redacted Hebrew.

Scripture does not lie. This was the battlecry from my email critic. Yes, it is true and we can be confident in the salvation truth that comes from the divinely inspired Word of God. But, people can and do lie, sometimes they even deceive themselves-- such is the downfall of putting a "personal" interpretation above that of the teaching Church instituted by Christ and guarded by the Holy Spirit. Scripture does not lie, but neither was it written in English. It was the living and teaching Church that determined which sources were reliable and how they might be interpreted. Ultimately, there can be no infallible Bible unless there is also an infallible Church.

Useful Source: Christian Apologetics by Rev. W. Devivier, S.J. (New York: Joseph F. Wagner, Inc., 1924).

Is Peter Really the Rock of the Church? (part 1)


Pope Kisses the Feet of Christ Crucified Posted by Hello

First Response

I am posing this question (again) in response to a most negative email from a Protestant who refused to give me the respectful title "Father" and who contrived all sorts of weak arguments and falsehoods to bolster his objections to the papacy. Let us look at the text in RSV Matthew 16:16-19:

Simon Peter replied, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God." And Jesus answered him, "Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven. And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

First, we must logically accept that "you are Peter" and "on this rock" refers to the same object, Simon Bar-Jona. Second, various Semitic phrases indicate an obvious Aramaic substratum in the Greek text. Wordplay is being made upon the word "Peter" as an indicator of identity. "You are KEPHA and upon this KEPHA I will build my church." We receive the dialogue after it has passed through a series of translations: Aramaic, Greek, possibly Latin, and finally English. What is most important is the original meaning given by Christ, not any contrived reinterpretation made on the basis of Greek gender-sensitive word endings. The source text, which appears in a few of the Eastern Scriptures, uses the same term. The Greek suffers a little from the fact that the word "petra" for rock is feminine. Obviously, one could not call Simon by a feminine or woman's name. Consequently, it is altered to "petros" which is the masculine version of the word. Unfortunately, the meaning is not strictly identical in that it might refer to a smaller rock or stone. Anti-Catholic critics will misconstrue this usage as signifying that Peter is not the foundation stone or rock of the Church; however, the slight difference between petros/petra in Matthew's Greek is judged insignificant by critical authorities. There are many examples in ancient usage of the two terms as interchangeable and possessing identical meaning.

The email critic claimed that the second use of the word "rock" referred not to Peter, but to Christ. Seeking to support his contention he listed the many numbers of times that Jesus was imaged as the rock or foundation of faith (that the Greek word "petra" was applied to Jesus 16 times in the New Testament). Then he said that it never did refer again to Peter. Well, word-counting games are quite popular with fundamentalist Christians, and yet, when they cross through various Scriptural texts, can become a hermeneutical nightmare. In this particular case, his eagerness to discount Catholic claims precipitated a serious miscalculation in his counting. Such critics rarely count the number of times "rock" is mentioned as a proper name for this privileged apostle under other renditions. Not only will our Lord use it, but it is transliterated into Greek in the Pauline letters as Kephas (1 Cor 1:12; 3:22; 9:5; 15:4; Gal 1:18; 2:9,11,14. John 1:42 translates it as Petros. Considering the text alone, and even many Protestant scholars today admit as much, the "rock" upon which the Church will be built is Peter. The word "ekklesia" or church only occurs in the Gospels here and twice in 18:17. The Catholic will readily admit that elsewhere both Christ and God are compared to a rock or called such; however, this fact does not nullify the clear interpretation of Simon Peter as rock in Matthew 16:16-19.

This same critic then suggested that the demonstrative pronouns used were indicative of the first rock or stone being Peter and the second and most important one being Jesus. But, the pronoun "this" actually demonstrates something quite different-- that it concerns Peter. As for the pronoun "it," in reference to the invulnerability from the powers of death, it is unclear whether it applies to the rock or to the church. The meaning is left unaltered in either case. The devil will never prevail against the Church built upon Peter.

The keys are a general reference to authority. The background may be Isaiah 2:15-25 wherein a sort of prime minister is given the keys to the palace entrance. Coincidentally, there was a successive nature to this role. Peter will be a visible rock for the great ROCK of Christ who will be taken from our sight. He will serve as a foundation rock to the Church, using a building analogy. His function will be to witness to Jesus as Messiah, the Son of the living God. The Church will not be overcome by the power of death. Peter's exercise of his authority in the Church on earth will be confirmed in heaven.

Useful Source: Christian Apologetics by Rev. W. Devivier, S.J. (New York: Joseph F. Wagner, Inc., 1924).

More on the Church


What is the Church?

Put simply, the Church is a community of faith founded by Christ which celebrates and makes known her Lord through his teachings and sacraments. This Church is composed of the clergy and the laity.

Does the Bible speak of the Church?

Yes, it does, a fact that is quite disturbing to those who disavow any significant role for her and who reduce Christian faith to a personal experience with occasional Christian fellowship. Jesus said: "You are Peter and upon this rock I will build my Church" (Matthew 16:18). St. Paul also speaks about "the Church of the living God" (Timothy 3:15). In Hebrews 12:22, he calls her "the Church of the first born." Revealing something of the intimacy between Christ and his people, St. Paul says in Ephesians 5:25, "Christ loved His Church." Jesus compares the Church to a flock of sheep: "There shall be one fold and one shepherd" (John 10:16).

Does the Bible say anything about Christ founding a Church?

Our Lord chose twelve apostles and commanded that they teach and insure that believers observe all that he had given them. Christ, himself, admits to his own authority, "All power is given to me in heaven and in earth" (Matthew 28:18) and extends it to his apostles, "As my Father has sent me, I also send you" (John 20:21). Christ appointed a visible headship or ultimate leadership among his apostles in Peter: "You are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church." This rock signifies that Peter should be the foundation stone and chief shepherd of the Church. Christ told him "Feed my sheep … Feed my lambs … Feed my sheep." In other words, he was to lead the apostles and teach the People of God. He was to minister to them and insure the efficacy of the sacraments, particularly the Eucharist.

When did this Church really begin?

The Acts of the Apostles chronicles how the apostles were empowered and began to exercise their mission on Pentecost. The Church expanded and prospered. Bishops were appointed to assist and to be the successors to the apostles. This living legacy extends all the way to today.

Can the origin of the Church and its apostolic succession be proven?

Sure, history and Church documents themselves are evidence of Church leadership and activity throughout the ages. Significant are the lists of succession, especially that of the Pope which extends back to Christ and his appointment of Peter. There has also been a successive series of Church fathers and doctors who have explained and defended the faith in every century. We might point also to the Church councils, which have corrected and maintained teaching and discipline against error so as to be faithful to Christ.

Can we really be sure from biblical testimony that Christ gave Peter a special supremacy and power?

Christ asserted that Peter was the rock or foundation stone of his Church. He tells him to feed his flock, to teach and minister to clergy and laity alike. He makes no qualm in saying, "To you I will give the keys of the kingdom of heaven, whatever you shall bind on earth, shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you shall loose on earth, shall be loosed also in heaven." Yes, the singular role of Peter is pretty clear.

Does the Bible assert that Peter was the chief apostle and that he exercised supremacy over them?

St. Peter personally presided over the election of Mathias. He was the first to address the crowd after the descent of the Holy Spirit. At the Sanhedrin in Jerusalem he took it upon himself to speak in the name of all the apostles. He presided in Jerusalem over the first Church council (Acts 15). He resolved disputed matters (Acts 15:7). St. Paul consulted Peter about certain practices. Indeed, early Christian history tells us that after Christ, Peter was considered the head and chief teacher of faith.

Can it be proven that the Catholic Church is the true Church?

Christ established the Catholic Church almost two thousand years ago. Her Christian teachings have remained consistent against the fads and fashions of time. Her saints have written our Church history in lives of holiness and sometimes even of martyrdom. She has spread throughout the world to the many nations of the earth. She has not deleted or compromised the teachings of Christ. She has an unbroken succession of leadership (that can be chronicled) going back to Jesus. The Catholic Church alone has weathered all the storms of dissension, schisms, paganism, and persecution.

How can it be said that no other denomination is the true Church?

Except for the special position of the Orthodox Churches and their relationship, albeit fractured, with the Catholic Church, all other Christian denominations emerge from the personal opinions of certain men. These figures alter, add, and delete from the deposit of faith according to their own whim and private notions. Non-Catholic churches disagree with one another and only possess fragments of Christ's teaching, not the whole truth. All saving truth "subsists" in the Catholic Church. These Churches extend back a couple centuries or merely a few years, not two millennia like the Catholic faith. These denominations exist only locally or in a few countries and are not worldwide. Having not formed under the watchful eye and guidance of the apostles, these so-called Bible-Christians ultimately explain the Scriptures in ways to suit human opinion.

Does the Bible actually say that we should submit our opinion to the Church?

We read St. Paul in Hebrews 13:17: "Obey your prelates, and be subject to them." Jesus said to the apostles: "Go therefore, teach all nations . . . Teaching them, to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you, and behold I am with you all days, even to the consummation of the world" (Matthew 28:18,19). "He that hears you, hears me, and he that condemns you, condemns me" (Luke 10:16). Thus it is that we should hear the Church and submit our opinions to her.

But blind submission violates the freedom of human inquiry and thinking, does it not?

This submission is not blind. We are obliged, to the best of our ability, to study the reasons and background for Catholic teachings. But, should we encounter "mystery" and we will, then we should render a religious assent to the views of the Church, which received the command from Christ to teach and to explain the truth.

Does not everyone have a right to his or her own opinion?

Yes, but only so long as the facts admit to differing opinions. But if truth should be made manifest or decided by a competent authority (like the Church), then we must submit. Children have opinions, would we say that they are always mature and correct? The insane have views too, would we consider all truth relative so as to give them credence? No, of course not.

Could not Christ have made things a lot easier for us, just by spelling out his doctrines so that no confusion might develop?

Christ did provide for the eventuality of misunderstanding. He gave us a certain and infallible teacher about his doctrines. In cases of uncertainty, we have a means of discerning the truth. He principally gave this infallibility to Peter, the Bishop of Rome, and to his successors.

But, is not the Bible an infallible teacher?

No, because many texts require explanation. There are some Scriptures difficult to understand. The multiplicity of denominations in this nation alone is proof that the Bible is no infallible teacher.

Does the Bible really say that St. Peter has infallible teaching authority?

Christ said to St. Peter: "Simon, Simon, behold, Satan has desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat; but I have prayed for you, that your faith not fail; and being converted, confirm your brethren" (Luke 22:31). In Matthew 16:17, Jesus said to Peter: "Blessed are you, Simon Bar Jona: because flesh and blood has not revealed it to you: that you are Peter (rock) and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it, and I give to you the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven. And whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven; and whatsoever you shall loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven." This proves that Peter was empowered by Jesus Christ that his faith would not falter and that he should insure and strengthen the faith of his brothers. Christ confided his Church to Peter as on a rock that will never be disturbed by false teachings or by the gates of hell. Christ said to Peter: "Feed my lambs . . . feed my sheep," (John 21:15), which means to teach and care for the whole Church. If Peter was charged to teach the whole Church, then Christ had to insure that he would be able to teach without error. Otherwise, no one could be required to believe what he taught. Except for some window dressing and the development of our appreciation of doctrine, the Church has taught the same unchanging doctrine for two thousand years.

But if Peter swore that he did not know Christ, how could he be infallible?

This question emerges from a common misunderstanding between "infallibility" and "impeccability". While St. Peter was infallible in teaching matters of faith and morals, he was not free from sin. Further, when Peter denied Christ, he had not received the Holy Spirit who would preserve him free from error in teaching the Church. Christ had yet to give him charge of his flock.

What does ex cathedra teaching mean?

It is a technical word, which means literally from the chair; it signifies when the Pope speaks from his role, as the universal teacher, some matter of faith and morals which must be accepted throughout the world. He puts the full weight of the seat of Peter behind it. His private conversations and such are not infallible.
Does such a view of infallibility create an atmosphere for ignorance, making people passive in investigating the truth?

No, quite to the contrary, infallibility insures that we do not follow any false leads. The truth is studied on a firm foundation and in the light; those who have no such guide search for the truth in the dark. The fragmentation of Protestantism is evidence of this latter route.

But wait a minute, is not the teaching regarding infallibility of recent origin?

It was formally defined toward the end of the 19th century as a necessary retort to a world that was increasingly secular and dismissive of the role of the Church. However, even before it became a declared article of faith, the Popes were always infallible. Papal infallibility is not a new doctrine; rather, it is a clearer definition of a perpetual truth.

But some Popes were terrible public sinners, does this not invalidate this business?

No, just as with Peter, infallibility does not mean an exemption from sin.

Could it be that Peter was infallible, but no Popes after him?

The guarantee from Jesus was that he would remain with his Church until the end of the world. Thus, the infallibility of Peter must endure as long as the Church exists and the teachings of Jesus have to be preserved from error. Anything less would have been unjust. Every generation has a right to the truth. Remember that Christ promised he would send to his Church the Spirit of truth that would abide with her forever (John 14).

At the time of the reformation, about the year 1500, did not the Catholic Church fall into idolatry and superstitious practices?

No, her beliefs have remained essentially the same throughout all history, going back to the apostles and the first Christians. These charges are the result of bigotry and misunderstanding.

Were there not many abuses in the Catholic Church at the time of the reformation?

The Church is holy because Christ is holy. However, many individual members of every "church" may be guilty of sinfulness and abuses. The Church has never formally approved of religious abuses and has legislated "Church" penalties, including excommunication, to discourage such activities.

Is it correct to assume that Protestant denominations possess the same faith and teachings as the first Christians?

No, this would be a false presumption. Many cases of deviation can be documented, not to mention their breach with the Catholic Church. While the first Christians acknowledged baptism as necessary for salvation, many of these "new" churches dismiss its importance. They also believed in the Church's jurisdiction over the sacrament of penance and the value of confession to a priest; all the Protestant sects renounce this mystery of mercy. The early Christians made the Eucharist the center of their lives, trusting that in Holy Communion they received the real body and blood of Jesus Christ. Most Protestant sects denounce the real presence, spiritualize it, or reduce it entirely to ordinary bread. Early Christians also inherited from the Jews of Christ's day the practice of praying for the dead; this also, the non-Catholic denominations have discarded.

What is so serious about a denomination updating or changing its tenets of faith?

Implicit in such an activity is the assumption that the previous tenets were incomplete or erroneous. Both cannot be right. The true teachings of Christ and the apostolic Church, the very matters of faith required for salvation, cannot be revised or altered. Attempts to do so sever the connection between believers and the true Church of Christ. Of course, issues of discipline can be revised according to changing circumstances. Further, the many languages of men and the various societies in which the Church finds herself may also dictate reformulation in the expressions of changeless doctrinal truths. It could also be said that the full meaning and ramifications of certain teachings develop or are only realized over time.

Does the Catholic Church fabricate new articles of faith?

No, she does not have the authority to create new teachings. Rather, she sometimes defines matters of faith that have existed in the Church from the very beginning. As for discipline, she can create or revoke laws according to changing circumstances.